Hi Nathan -
On Fri, 1 Aug 2014 12:18:00 -0600, Nathan Andelin <nandelin@xxxxxxxxx>
You make some good points Charles, but I find the following to be most
So if I owned example.com, I'd have three name servers (assuming I delegate
authority to the sub-domains):
- for example.com (ns1.example.com)
- for east.example.com (ns2.east.example.com)
- for west.example.com (ns3.west.example.com)
Those who register domain names such as "example.com" have public
hosting providers and a public name server providers as opposed to
using a DNS registry on one's internal networks to define subdomains.
So, rather than your suggestion of having a 1-to-1 mapping between a
domain name and a DNS server on one's private network and calling that
a "subdomain", the public provider will use "A" records to define
subdomains (map west.example.com, and east.example.com to any public
IP address of one's choosing including the option of mapping both
subdomain names to the same IP address).
Charles is specifically referring to the situation where
east.example.com and west.example are *truly* subdomains.
In your last paragraph, they are not *truly* subdomains, they are
hosts within the example.com domain, as indicated by 'will use "A"
Let me quote again that Wikipedia article to which you so kindly
provided a link:
|A resource record, such a A(host), CNAME(alias) or MX (mail), should
|not be confused with a subdomain node. A subdomain does not point to
|any specific server location, while most resource records do
|(resource records that do not point to specific hosts contain
As soon as you talk about an "A" record, "CNAME" recod, or "MX"
records, you are NOT talking about a subdomain, you are talking about
Opinions expressed are my own and do not necessarily represent the views
of my employer or anyone in their right mind.