×
The internal search function is temporarily non-functional. The current search engine is no longer viable and we are researching alternatives.
As a stop gap measure, we are using Google's custom search engine service.
If you know of an easy to use, open source, search engine ... please contact support@midrange.com.
I had a question from a user about ACP500 in BPCS 4.02 as to why the
"amount to cost" field was coming up with a zero value. From what I've
seen this comes from the expected cost field in the HPO record. That
raises the question as to the source of the expected cost. I found a
message in the archives describing the expected cost:
http://archive.midrange.com/bpcs-l/200701/msg00046.html
"What happens is, when the PO is first created, the expected cost field is
a copy of the standard cost, then after the vendor confirms our PO with
the delivery date, pricing etc. our Purchasing people update the PO with
that info. The new cost goes into the EXPECTED COST, which is what we
expect the actual cost to be."
In our case this is a new part number and this is the first time that
we've received anything against it. Is it likely that the reason that
it's coming up a zero in ACP500 is because there was no cost on file when
the PO was first entered?
Dave Parnin
midrange.com
