It is using the library list to find the program object.
So no, the call could be unqualified and call the same program.
Cheers
Don
Â
Don Brown
Senior Consultant
Â
[1]OneTeam IT Pty Ltd
P: 1300 088 400
-----Original Message-----
From: MIDRANGE-L <midrange-l-bounces@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> On Behalf Of Dan
Bale
Sent: Wednesday, 5 February 2025 2:27 PM
To: Midrange Systems Technical Discussion <midrange-l@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Subject: Sanity check: RTVOBJD *LIBL/ABCMONRG RTNLIB(&LIBNAM), then CALL
&LIBNAM/ABCMONRG???
Code snippet of a production CLP program I am currently modifying:
DCL VAR(&LIBNAM) TYPE(*CHAR) LEN(10)
RTVOBJD OBJ(ABCMONRG) OBJTYPE(*PGM) RTNLIB(&LIBNAM)
CALL PGM(&LIBNAM/ABCMONRG)
Is there *any* scenario where "CALL ABCMONRG" without the first two
statements doesn't always call the program from the same library?
&LIBNAM is not used anywhere else in the program.
There are no intervening statements between the RTVOBJD and CALL commands.
There is enough complexity in other parts of the program that tells me the
original programmer was no dummy. Am I the dummy?
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