If I understand correctly, a IPv6 only client can reach IPv6 (of course)
and IPv4 by prefixing 80 zero bits to the IPv4 address, But an IPv4
client can not access an IPv6 host. It requires to pass trough some kind
of translator.

If this is realy like I think, then there is no reason to keep IPv4 in
the internal network, except the cost of the change. My idea is to use
only IPv6 in all new computers, and let the old IPv4 die litle by litle.

IPv4 addresses got realy exausted now, people are reselling the ones
they have reserved and don't use. The price is likely to go up.

In 1990 the IPv4 addresses got almost exausted, but somedy found a patch
using NAT, and that prolonged the agony of IPv4 until now.

David Gibbs wrote:
Ken Sims wrote:
One of the things I've wondered about ... If a PC on an internal IPv4
network wants to reach an internet host, and that internet host only
has an IPv6 address, can that IPv6 IP address be put in the IPv4
packets for addressing purposes?

Assuming there's a router between the PC and the internet, I would imagine so.


This thread ...


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